Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 07:50
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What symptoms did you notice before being diagnosed with cancer?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What was the first Native American tribe to inhabit Long Island, NY?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Has your mother ever walked in on you at an inappropriate time?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?